Wouldn't a lower number of billionaires to a higher amount of profits be more favorable to everyone except billionaires? So that particular example actually favors the system in the USA, oddly.
Of course, GDP only accounts for excess goods and services sold to other nations, which for the USA includes financial services like trading platforms and exchanges, heavily skewing their actual production capacity.
I think so, yeah. Also, billionaire means anything more than 1 billion, right? It might help to look at how much wealth they actually have; for example, if one nation has 1 billionaire (with $30 billion) and another has 30 billionaires (each with $1 billion), I wouldn't argue that the former is especially better off.
You only need one guillotine. But really though, if he's hoarding the same amount of resources as the 30 are, what's the difference? At least spread out among 30 individuals it's (somewhat) less power and influence in a single person's hands.
It's worth noting, though, that this doesn't take into account the levels of inequality beyond comparing numbers of billionaires/non-billionaires.
The Gini coefficient is a popular method of measuring economic inequality, on a scale from 0 (total equality) to 1 (one person owns the entire nation's wealth).
It's a good thing that all that time and resources and blood was spent making the CCP the only instrument of significant political power in China so they could [check notes] as a much-poorer country, have about the same number of billionaires as the poster country for capitalism!
The PRC, which is run exclusively by the CCP, is kind of the topic of discussion here. Is that too complex for you to grasp?
in any case the country has seen the unprecedented growth in the econony and quality of life since its inception.
It's hilarious that tankies throw fits over capitalist countries using the same measure to judge their successes, but immediately resort to it when their favorite fascist state is questioned.