What the jury found Donald Trump did to E. Jean Carroll was in fact rape, as commonly understood, even if it didn't fit New York law's narrow definition, says Judge Lewis A. Kaplan.
All the news headlines and verdict said sexual abuse, which was kind of vague, but I just found out today that the judge clarified that this was a matter of legal definition and by the verdict of the trial and the case, trump has been found guilty of penetrative rape.
Why exactly should there be a distinction between forcing yourself on a woman and penetrating her with your finger and forcing yourself on a woman and penetrating her with your penis? Is a penis somehow worse than a finger when it comes to forcibly penetrating a woman?
So rape is based on the possibility of pregnancy? Should the rape of a woman post-menopause be considered as a lesser crime than the rape of a woman who has the capability of getting pregnant? What if it's during her period?
Article says the jury found trump liable for digital(fingers) penetration, but not for irrefutable non-consensual penetration using his penis, which is the only way to legally be found liable for "rape" in NY.
I have not watched or read a transcript of the trial yet, this is a true TIL.
At least trump was found liable, though. I was thinking of a victim exposing themselves in the courtroom and the countless times a jury finds for the rich douchebag with more lawyers.
Not a convict because it was a civil case rather than criminal, trump is still a rapist according to a judge and jury.
I only bring this up so that if you ever get in a debate or someone says he's not a rapist, they can't falsely dismiss that trumpi is a rapist on a technicality within your statement.
How much does it matter to the victim whether the assaulter's penis or fingers were forced inside of them if they couldn't identify which it was? I'm sure she would have preferred neither. You're just arguing semantics right?