Bob, Stephanie, and Amir go to get ice cream. Their options are chocolate and vanilla. Bob orders chocolate, and gets the last of the chocolate. Stephanie can only order vanilla, and gets the last of the vanilla ice cream. Amir gets no ice cream, because he is fasting for Ramadan.
Well Amir had a fully diversified portfolio while Stephanie had a 401(k) and Roth IRA with some penny stocks for fun, but Bob mortgaged his house to buy the latest crypto because he was assured it was only going up and he was getting in on the ground floor and this wasn't like the other 67 times he bought crypto and... Oh.
I forgot to mention that Bob hates vanilla because it reminds him of his abusive aunt who would force him to eat vanilla ice cream while she watched, because she was on a diet and wanted to enjoy it vicariously.
Did Bob really have a choice? Or was his preference for chocolate an inextricable eventuality predetermined by a repeating cycle of abuse and trauma?
Yes, he has chosen within available options according to the reasons you have described. Just because there is an explanation about the choice, it does not invalidate the existence of the choice. Acting according to your will is making choice.
It is the opposite that would indicate the absence of choice - if you out of free will wanted chocolate, but forced to take vanilla (by vanilla vigilante) - THEN you did not have a choice. But as long as you acting according to your preferences, it is your choice.